Notes III
The Gram-Schmidt process and proof
The Gram-Schmidt process and proof
There exists a method for constructing an orthonormal basis from an existing basis, known as the Gram-Schmidt process. If we have a basis \(|w_{1} \rangle, |w_{2}\rangle, \ldots, |w_{n}\rangle\) in an inner product space \(V\), then we can construct an orthonormal basis \(|v_{1} \rangle, |v_{2}\rangle, \ldots, |v_{n}\rangle\) for \(V\). Let us define
Then for \(k\) going from \(1\) to \(n-1\), we can define inductively
Using this technique, we can always generate some orthonormal basis \(|v_{1} \rangle, |v_{2}\rangle, \ldots, |v_{n}\rangle\). Notice that despite it seeming very complex, it uses the same general idea of normalisation by dividing by norm. Also notice that the numerator is a vector because the inner product always yields a number. We will now prove that this process in fact gives us an orthonormal basis.
Theorem (Gram-Schmidt process)
Let \(V\) be an inner product space, and let \(S = \{|w_{1}\rangle, |w_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|w_{n}\rangle \}\) be a linearly independent set of vectors from \(V\). Then the set \(\overline S = \{|v_{1}\rangle, |v_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|v_{n}\rangle \}\) forms an orthonormal basis for \(V\) such that
Proof. We will be using a constructive proof. Since \(S\) is a linearly independent set, \(|w_{k}\rangle \neq 0 \forall k\). Let us define \(|v_{1}\rangle=\frac{|w_{1}\rangle}{\left\Vert |w_{1}\rangle \right\Vert}\). Clearly, \(|v_{1}\rangle\) is a normalised vector, and thus \(\text{span}\{|w_{1}\rangle\}=\text{span}\{|v_{1}\rangle\}\), satisfying the theorem for \(k=1\). Now let us define
Note that this is the normalised form of the orthogonal decomposition given by \(|w_{2}\rangle - \langle w_{2}|v_{1}\rangle|v_{1}\rangle\). From this we can see that \(\left\Vert |v_{2}\rangle \right\Vert = 1\), and that indeed \(\text{span}\{|w_{1}\rangle,|w_{2}\rangle\}=\text{span}\{|v_{1}\rangle,|v_{2}\rangle\}\).
After continuing like this, suppose that we have constructed the orthonormal basis \(\{|v_{1}\rangle, |v_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|v_{k-1}\rangle \}\) with \(\text{span}\{|w_{1}\rangle, |w_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|w_{k-1}\rangle \}=\text{span}\{|v_{1}\rangle, |v_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|v_{k-1}\rangle \}\). We define
Since \(S\) is a linearly independent set, \(|v_{k}\rangle \not\in \text{span}\{|w_{1}\rangle, |w_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|w_{k}\rangle\}\). This is obvious because a vector cannot be contained within a span of vectors not containing itself. From this it also follows that \(|v_{k}\rangle \not\in \text{span}\{|v_{1}\rangle, |v_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|v_{k}\rangle\}\). Although the denominator of equation \((1)\) consists of a possible linear combination of vectors that could result in an indeterminate form, the previous fact mitigates that, so we know that the expression is valid. Note also that \(\left\Vert |v_{k}\rangle \right\Vert =1\). To show that \(\overline S\) is orthonormal, note that
for \(i\in [1,k-1]\). Since this implies that the two vectors are orthogonal, we know that \(\overline S\) is an orthonormal basis of \(V\). To prove the final statement, notice in equation \((1)\) that \(|w_{k}\rangle \in \text{span}\{|v_{1}\rangle, |v_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|v_{k}\rangle \}\). From this we know that \(\text{span}\{|w_{1}\rangle, |w_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|w_{k}\rangle \} \subset \text{span}\{|v_{1}\rangle, |v_{2}\rangle,\ldots,|v_{k}\rangle \}\). Since the span of one set is a subset of the other, and both sets are linearly independent, they must span subspaces of \(V\) with equal dimension. This implies that \(\text{span}(S) = \text{span}(\overline S)\), and we are done.
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(1 June, 2023)